I John 1:8
Michael Sawilowsky
msawilowsky at bryanisd.org
Thu Apr 18 13:25:04 EDT 2002
I am at the beginning of my studies of NT Greek and am currently working
through Mounce's "A Graded Reader of Biblical Greek."
I am stuck on one of his questions...
I John 1:8 " EAN EIPWMEN hOTI hAMARTIAN OUK ECOMEN"
Based on BAGD, 2, hAMAPTIA ... hAMAPTIAN ECEIN means "to possess a sinful
nature". If this is correct, how does it affect your exegesis? Had the
author intended here to refer to individual sinful acts, what verb would
he probably used?
Thoughts?
-Michael [Sawilowsky. New list-members please take note: BG
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