I John 1:8

Michael Sawilowsky msawilowsky at bryanisd.org
Thu Apr 18 13:25:04 EDT 2002


I am at the beginning of my studies of NT Greek and am currently working
through Mounce's "A Graded Reader of Biblical Greek."
I am stuck on one of his questions...

I John 1:8   " EAN EIPWMEN hOTI  hAMARTIAN OUK ECOMEN"

Based on BAGD, 2, hAMAPTIA ... hAMAPTIAN ECEIN means "to possess a sinful
nature".  If this is correct, how does it affect your exegesis?  Had the
author intended here to refer to individual sinful acts, what verb would
he probably used?

Thoughts?

-Michael [Sawilowsky. New list-members please take note: BG
protocol requires a full-name signature to be appended to all
messages sent to the list (regardless whether it's in the "From"
header.]




More information about the B-Greek mailing list