John's use of APOSTELLW and PEMPW

Mark Wilson emory2oo2 at hotmail.com
Sun Aug 4 23:40:54 EDT 2002




The following footnote is found in a commentary I am
reading on GJohn. I think the footnote itself is all
that is needed for my question.

-----
John uses APOSTELLW in the aorist and perfect indicative active
and the perfect participle passive, whereas he uses PEMPW in the
present, the future, and the aorist active participle. The
difference is not one of meaning but of John's consistent choice
of certain parts only of each of these verbs.
----

He then adds that John uses these two words interchangeably
elsewhere.

How does this comment affect your understanding of these
specific uses of John as it pertains to verbal aspect/tense?
It seems to be saying that one may not be able to attach ANY
significance to a particular FORM if the author ONLY USES that
FORM elsewhere. But can we attach any significance to the fact
that this author could have chosen ANOTHER form to employ
at all times.

Just curious how you linguists approach this.

Mark Wilson


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