Sentences in Greek
Eric S. Weiss
eweiss at gte.net
Wed Aug 7 11:47:40 EDT 2002
If you are saying that it is illegitimate to put a period before a GAR or
DE clause because in Greek it really doesn't represent a new sentence,
then I would like some confirmation that your point is valid.
Some people view Ephesians 1:3-14 as a single sentence, though both UBS 3
and N-A 26 put periods at a few places. There is no GAR or DE anywhere in
this passage, however. In fact, the first DE doesn't occur until 2:4 and
the first GAR not until 2:8, unless I missed one. KAI however appears at
1:11 as something other than a connective of two nouns or noun phrases.
And, of course, you have the DIA TOUTO at 1:15 which definitely is a stop.
But ... I cannot believe that the author really meant 1:3-14 to be one
continuous thoughtflow, even if a "literal" translation would make it a
continuous and convoluted series of subordinate clauses (hypotactic
construction, I believe it's called, vs. paratactic) with no stopping
except to take a breath.
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