The Neuter, John 6:37 and Other Texts Like 1 Cor. 13:10 and James 1:25.
Danny Andre' Dixon
bereandad at yahoo.com
Tue Aug 13 10:03:50 EDT 2002
The following grammar references may prove helpful:
"In Greek literature, the neuter is used at times with
reference to persons if it is not the individuals, but
a general quality that is to be emphasized"
(Blass-Debrunner-Funk, Grammar of the NT and Other
Early Christian Literature), p. 76.
The comment is supported by:
G.W. Winer, A GRAMMAR OF THE IDIOM OF THE N.T. rev. by
G. Lunemann (Andover: Draper, 1870, p. 78.
A.T. Robertson, A GRAMMAR OF THE GREEK N.T. IN LIGHT
OF HISTORICAL RESEARCH (Nashville: Broadman Press,
1934), p. 411.
I've found the comments helpful with respect to a
couple of passages other than those the questioner
poses, namely Luke 19:10, where Jesus came to seek and
to save WHAT [neut.] was lost [people, although some
have given some interesting attention in reconcilation
theology to the relation of the concept of the
redemption of the earth based on the language in
Romans 8].
I have also thought about the value of the neuter in
considering "that which [neut.] is perfect" in 1
Corinthians 13:10. Many scholars in my religious
tradition would have the neuter TO TELEION there be
"the perfect law of liberty" of James 1:25 suggesting
that the completed canon of scripture would indicate
the end of the spiritual gifts referred to in 1 Cor.
13:10. Of course one has to consider this in light of
the mixture of the feminine with the neuter there
[NOMON TELEION TON TNS ELEUTHERIAS]. Seems to me that
the PERSON, Jesus, could be represented by the neuter
there in the same way that "all that my Father gives
me" can be that corporate group of people who get
saved in John 6:37.
But I'm edging onto a discussion of theology, not
appropriate for this forum.
Study well,
Danny Andre' Dixon
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