Genitive case of ANDROS in 1 Tim 2:12

Peter Ballard pballard at ozemail.com.au
Thu Aug 15 03:42:15 EDT 2002


G'day all,

Probably a really basic question. Sorry :-)

DIDASKEIN DE GUNAIKI OUK EPITREPW OUDE AUTHENTEIN ANDROS

Why is ANDROS genitive? Is it simply because AUTHENTEIN is one of
those verbs for which the object goes in the genitive rather than
accusative case?

I am aware that there has been scholarly debate over whether ANDROS
is also the subject of the verb DIDASKEIN. I'm hoping to leave that
aside for now. i.e. if the verse simply said: 
GUNAIKI OUK EPITREPW AUTHENTEIN ANDROS
would we still expect ANDROS to be in the genitive?

Thanks in advance,

Peter Ballard
Adelaide, AUSTRALIA
pballard at ozemail.com.au
http://www.ozemail.com.au/~pballard/

"I am simply reflecting the American position" - J. Howard, 5-Aug-2002



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