Genitive case of ANDROS in 1 Tim 2:12
Maurice A. O'Sullivan
mauros at iol.ie
Thu Aug 15 07:44:53 EDT 2002
At 08:42 15/08/02, Peter Ballard wrote:
>Why is ANDROS genitive? Is it simply because AUTHENTEIN is one of
>those verbs for which the object goes in the genitive rather than
>accusative case?
Peter:
There is an extensive treatment of the genitive with verbs in Smyth's
"Greek Grammar", beginning at s. 1341
Go to: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/ptext?doc=Perseus:abo:sec,00001
enter 1341 in the "Go to" box and hit ENTER
Enjoy!
Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]
mauros at iol.ie
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