hETEROS vs ALLOS
waldo slusher
waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Thu Aug 15 20:44:31 EDT 2002
It seems that classical Greek writers were somewhat
careful to use these two words in such a way as to
take advantage of their differences. ALLOS being one
and another of the same or similar kind, and hETEROS
one and another of a different kind altogether. Was
this distinction ALWAYS followed in classical Greek?
I understand languages go through change, but is there
any reason when this distinction could have been
beautifully preserved in a NT text, that the author
did not always avail himself to this nicety. It's one
thing for the distinction to have become blurred, but
it is yet another thing to not take advantage of what
was presumedly known to first century people (I am
assuming first century readers or hearers knew of that
older distinction since 2000 years later many have
quite easily discovered it.)
=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AL
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