John 17:23

Matthew T. Williams kopio at attbi.com
Sun Aug 18 17:11:17 EDT 2002


Hello All,

My pastor preached in John 17 this morning and as I was following along in
my text I saw something that caught my eye.  In 17:23 John writes;

    hINA WSIN TETELEIWMENOI EIS hEN

What caught my eye is the Subjunctive Finite with the Perfect Participle.  I
don't remember seeing this before.  I dug through the usual suspects
(Wallace, BDF, and Robertson) and I didn't come up with a whole lot.
Wallace and Robertson agree that this is a Perfect Periphrastic Participle.
This particular construct (Conj+Subj+Perf Part.) only occurs 4 other times
in the NT (Mt 6:31, Lk. 21:20 and Jas. 5:15).

I guess what I'm struggling with is that this particular construct seems to
contradict itself (at least in my head).  I was wondering if anyone could
help explain the relationship between these two verbs.  I was also wondering
if this sort of construct is very common in Koine or Classical Greek.

Any input would be greatly appreciated.

In Christ,

--------------------------------
Matthew T. Williams
kopio at attbi.com
360-883-8946
Vancouver, Wa
--------------------------------




More information about the B-Greek mailing list