Hebrew=Aramaic?

Theodore H. Mann theomann at earthlink.net
Tue Aug 27 12:18:19 EDT 2002


In the NT I count ten instances where terms or sentences are said to be
"in Hebrew" (Jn.5:2, 19:13,17,20 / Acts 21:40, 22:2, 26:14 / Phil.3:5 /
Rev.9:11, 16:16), but I read here and there (e.g., F.F. Bruce: NIC,
regarding Acts 26:14, footnote 18) that at least some of these references
are to Aramaic, not Hebrew.  I gather that the Greek translation of an
Aramaic term differs from that of a Hebrew term, and that it's possible to
tell from that which is which.  Does the term "Hebrew" in all of the above
verses refer to Aramaic?

Thanks for your help.

Ted
Dr. Theodore "Ted" H. Mann
theomann at earthlink.net
http://home.earthlink.net/~theomann






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