Hebrew=Aramaic?
Penner
pennerkm at mcmaster.ca
Tue Aug 27 16:32:14 EDT 2002
Although the claim that "Hebrew" in the GNT really means Aramaic is
common, Randall Buth will tell you something like the following, which
he wrote to this list on 16/10/01:
'Aramaic is always referred to by the word group "SYRO-" among
Greek writers. The only exception I've found are proper names in the NT
that are etymologically borrowed from Aramaic, in which case it may be
called "EBRAI-"'
I am inclined to agree that we can take the name of the language at face
value unless the word is a proper name (in which case Hebrew could adopt
it from Aramaic).
Ken Penner, M.C.S. (Biblical Languages, Greek Focus), M.A. (Hebrew
Poetry)
Ph.D. Student, McMaster University
pennerkm at mcmaster.ca
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> In the NT I count ten instances where terms or sentences are
> said to be "in Hebrew" (Jn.5:2, 19:13,17,20 / Acts 21:40,
> 22:2, 26:14 / Phil.3:5 / Rev.9:11, 16:16), but I read here
> and there (e.g., F.F. Bruce: NIC, regarding Acts 26:14,
> footnote 18) that at least some of these references are to
> Aramaic, not Hebrew. I gather that the Greek translation of
> an Aramaic term differs from that of a Hebrew term, and that
> it's possible to tell from that which is which. Does the
> term "Hebrew" in all of the above verses refer to Aramaic?
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