John 1
Jonathan Burke
jburke at sprint.net.au
Wed Aug 28 09:03:23 EDT 2002
Hi Lew,
>
In John 1:3 the word 'him' was translated 'it' until the Rheims Bible of the
late 1500's. When we go to verse 5 the same word is translated 'it' and in
verse 4, 10,11 and 12 the same word is translated as 'him'. To me it is
obvious that the subject is light, especially in verse 10. Should the word
be translated 'him' or 'it' as it is done elsewhere such as Matt.13:19; Mark
4:19,20; and more particularly Luke 11:28.
>
Actually, the way it reads to me is that the LOGOS is the subject, then what
the LOGOS became. The LOGOS was with God, and was God, then the LOGOS was
made flesh.
But since a LOGOS is an impersonal subject (there's not even any
personification here), it is the LOGOS which I would translate 'it' to verse
5.
As for what the LOGOS became, I would translate that 'he', because the LOGOS
(the impersonal rational thought, the Divine utterance), has now become a
physical reality - has in fact become a person.
I see no difference between the use of the LOGOS here and the extensive use
of the DAVAR in the Old Testament. The usage is identical.
Genesis 1 is the first place in which the DAVAR becomes anything - and it
becomes light at the beginning of the creation, and flesh and the end (very
much like John 1).
In short, I would treat the LOGOS here in the same way that I would treat
the DAVAR of the Old Testament. It's clearly talking about the same
subject - call it the DAVAR of God, or the LOGOS of God, it's still the word
of God.
Jonathan Burke.
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