genitive autou in John 1:3
Mike Dewus
dewus at bluemarble.net
Sat Dec 14 14:39:11 EST 2002
BlankThank you for your help and guidance previously with this question; I
am curious as to your opinion regarding the possibility that John did in
fact intend the genitive-possessive form His...in PANTA DI AUTOU
EGENETO...and again later in KAI CWRIS AUTOU EGENETO; such that he meant the
Word verbatim through the use of the possessive pronoun, which would have
been understood/comprehended amongst/by his (near) contemporaries, is that a
possibility in ancient Greek, relative to this sentence structure and
application involving AUTO? Translated, he would have said 'all through His
[Word--understood] came into being, and without His [ Word-understood] came
into being not even one...' Can this be taken beyond the realm of subjection
by some evidence of their language? Its awkward in English, but perhaps it
is not so in the vernacular of John's day. For an English example, my use of
awkward just now is probably understood so: that it's awkward [grammatically
and/or colloquially], to some readers. Thanks. Kind regards,
Mike Dewus
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