Gospel John 1:2 as redundant
revelation
info at revelationjesuschrist.com
Fri Jul 19 23:14:43 EDT 2002
Waldo
you wrote:
Is there another verse in the GNT
that simply repeats the previous verse.... for no
apparent reason? Had John found it necessary to remind
his readers of this statement much later in his
letter, I think I could understand the repeat. But
repeating yourself, side by side, is that not awkward
indeed?
John not only repeats himself in 1:1-2 ... but the last words Jesus
says in his gospel (Jn 21:22-23) is also a repeat:
21:22 Says to him the Jesus ... "If I want him to remain until I
come ... what to you?" ... "You follow me."
21:23 Went forth therefore this the word among the brothers ...
that the disciple would not die. But the Jesus did not say to him that
he would not die ... but only "if I want him to remain until I come ...
what to you?"
The point of the repeat is not to strengthen or emphasize what he is
saying but to contradict how his disciples interpreted what he said.
This is a great example of how words spoken by Jesus can have two
different ... even opposite meanings. The Greek gospels contain
many examples of wordplay, puns, and rhetorical constructions that
that are totally lost in the translation to English.
Dan Gleason
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