James 1: right strawy translation questions

Wayne Leman wayne_leman at sil.org
Wed Jun 5 09:28:43 EDT 2002


Correct me if I'm wrong, please. I am assuming that TIS of James 1:5, the
third person singular command referent of the AITEITW and the third
person singular subjects of the participles of James 1:6, hO
ANQRWOPOS of James 1:7, and ANHR of James 1:8 are all
co-referential, that is, that they refer to the same person. Does this
seem right to you, so far?

Would hO ADELFOS of James 1:9 continue this referential cohesion, referring
to the same person?

If we have lexical, referential cohesion in at least 1:5-8, and possibly
1:5-9, would any of you have any suggestions as to why James uses different
words to refer to the same person? Would it be just for stylistic variety,
or would there be some semantic purpose for using the different terms to
refer to the same person?

Finally, how would *you* translate each of the above Greek words in this
section so that the lexical cohesion (co-reference) is clear in translation,
that is, so that it is clear in English that the same person is being talked
about?

Hay, that wasn't too hard, was it? I ask a lot of strawy questions, but some
of you field (ahem!) them quite well!

Wayne Leman






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