Revelation 1:10

David Thiele thielogian at yahoo.com
Wed Jun 5 15:41:23 EDT 2002


Ed,

In theory yes, but in actual fact probably not.  The
Greek is KURIAKH hHMERA.  Whenever the "day of the
Lord" is referred to in the NT it is in the form of hH
hHMERA (TOU) KURIOU.  All of this begs the question as
to why John uses such a striking different formular
here.  

There are various contextual factors that go against
this interpretation (day of the Lord) in Rev 1:10 as
well, but I won't go into them here.  For myself, I
think a reference to Easter most likely in this verse.

Regards

David
David Thiele
Pacific Adventist University
Papua New Guinea


 --- Ed Garcia <Ed.Garcia at FHLBTopeka.com> wrote: >
Revelation 1:10 uses the expression "the Lord's
> day". Can the Greek here be
> translated as "the day of the Lord"? Why or why not?
> Or, what makes for the
> best translation? Sorry for not including the
> transliterated Greek
> characters but I never seem to get them quite right.
> Thank you.
> 
> 
> Ed Garcia
> Kansas
> 
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