AGAPH outside the New Testament

One of the McKays musicke at ozemail.com.au
Fri Jun 14 10:28:56 EDT 2002


  I think that David was imposing a Western concept of
> >'love' onto the Hebrew and Greek words under consideration.
> >The concept of love does not necessarily have to connote selfsacrificial
> >affection.  Even our English word 'love' can refer to love which is
illicit,
> >desire which is unrestrained, love which is considered morally wrong.


> >The point is that if AGAPH is unconditional, then it can refer just as
> >easily to unconditional desire.  The rape of a woman certainly seems to
me
> >to connote unconditional desire.
> >Why do we suppose that the word always has to have a warm and fuzzy
> >definition?  Not even our word 'love' has that.
> >
G'day Jonathan

I think you are trying to have it both ways. I agree that Greek words for
"love" have a range of meanings, just like English does.

But if AGAPH is to have a specific meaning, it seems to be cheating to say
it can also have this meaning of "unconditional desire." That seems to me to
be clutching to a theory in the face of clear evidence that it does not have
this restricted meaning.

I only quoted one passage and deliberately chose one that was extreme, and
hopefully repugnant to the concept of AGAPH meaning a special Christian
love.

While it is undoubtedly used many times of God's love for us and our love
for God, so are other words in the NT.

And it is also used of the Jewish leaders' love of human praise, of Demas'
love of the world, etc.

David McKay
musicke at ozemail.com.au
http://members.ozemail.com.au/~musicke






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