Hebrews 2:9 hOPWS XAPITI QEOU hUPER PANTOS GEUSHTAI QANATOU
Jonathan Ferguson
jferguson at tabernacleministries.org
Tue Jun 18 13:39:50 EDT 2002
hOPWS XAPITI QEOU hUPER PANTOS GEUSHTAI QANATOU
Hello,
If anyone knows, I was wondering why the KJV has "that he by the grace
of God should taste death for every man." (Heb. 2:9). I was wondering what
caused them to supply "man." Some people who believe in limited atonement
(I personally do not) point out that this verse in the Greek text does not
contain man (ANQRWPOS), and therefore, "every" is referring to "every" of
the bretheren mentioned in verse 11. I was wondering if anyone knew of a
grammatical rule that would aid in understand why "man" is included in the
KJV. I understand that sometimes there are idioms in the Greek NT, or that
there are sometimes when you must supply words (even though the KJV does not
have "man" in italics which surprised me). For example, if I were to say
"Ich gehe nach hause und essen brot," that literally means "I go after house
and eat bread." However, a German-speaking person would know that I meant
"I go home and eat a sandwich." I didn't say a word for sandwich, but I
implied it. Do you think that is the case in this verse? (Some of the
other versions have "everyone.")
in Christ,
Jonathan B. Ferguson
Kjvonly16 at aol.com
Psalm 27:1
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