"good" or "better"

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Fri Jun 21 03:28:16 EDT 2002


> However, quite possibly the meaning of 1 Corinthians 7:1 should
> be rendered
> with "good" rather than "better": "It is good for a man not to be having
> sexual relations with his wife."
>
> Regards,
>
> Ward

Thanks for conceding the "good" option.
But now you introduce another questionable translation by saying "with his
wife". The text says:

ANQRWPWi GUNAIKOS MH hAPTESQAI - a man not to have sexual relations with a
woman

Your translation would require THS GUNAIKOS AUTOU (not found in any
manuscript). Alternatively, if GUNAIKOS was dependent on ANHR rather than
ANQRWPOS it could possibly be construed to mean wife, but it should still be
definite since a husband has only one wife, and it is obvious that he should
not have sex with just any woman who is not his wife. The text of 7:1 refers
to a woman, not a wife. I am not aware of any translation that renders the
word here "wife" rather than "woman".

I think it is quite likely that the Corinthians could have said what you are
suggesting, and this could have been one of statements in their letter that
Paul is responding to in 2-5. The problem is that our text does not say so.

Iver Larsen




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