"good" or "better"
Mark Wilson
emory2oo2 at hotmail.com
Mon Jun 24 22:10:23 EDT 2002
Ward:
Why does Paul attempt to divert those in 7:1 from
committing PORNEIAS, a condition that I thought was
limited to those unmarried? That is, are you saying that
Paul is instructing the married couples how to avoid PORNEIAS?
If so, in what sense?
I'm in no position to challenge your extensive work in this
area, but I simply must ask this: Are you saying that some
husband suggested that all husbands stop having sexual relations
with their wives, and even more difficult for me, that many
husbands began to follow this doctrine?
I can see ONE disgruntled husband, maybe two, coming up with such
a "bizarre" abstinence doctrine, but I am having a hard time
understanding how such a teaching could permeate more than a
handful of nuts :o )
Finally, does PERI DE need to imply a "new" topic? It seems to me
that PERI DE simply introduces a topic the Corinthians had raised.
This PERI DE seems to flow somewhat smoothly from the preceding
chapter, whereas the other PERI DE's are more abrupt.
What would be the harm of restricting the topic to hAPTW
without tying it to a specific act or group? The topic then
would be the proper role of sexual intimacy (hAPTW), which naturally
forces Paul into a discussion of marriage.
A previous reply noted the hAPTW....PUR- connection between
verses 1 and 9. Verse 9 clearly references the unmarried; is
this unrelated to what precedes it in Chapter 7?
Thanks
Mark Wilson
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