Question on Genesis 34:3 LXX
Jim West
jwest at highland.net
Wed Nov 6 16:46:08 EST 2002
At 04:34 PM 11/6/02 -0500, you wrote:
>I'm not quite sure what the point of this is. Is it that there's supposed
>to be some Greek word that means "a woman without sexual experience" and
>doesn't ever mean anything else? Is it as if we used the word in only one
>way in English? Ever heard of "virgin snow"? My favorite is "extra virgin
>olive oil," which of course is far superior to ordinary "virgin olive oil."
>Perhaps we ought to forget the word "virgin" for PARQENOS and go back to
>the good old Victorian word, "maiden." Everybody knows exactly what that
>means, right?
>--
>
>Carl W. Conrad
howdy.
perhaps if we were to dissect the noun and set its parts back together we
could come up with something a bit more helpful than virgin.
the preposition par + the verb tithemi... to set beside, to set aside, to
dedicate. sounds like "saint" a bit doesn't it. further, the hebrew noun
"almah" (which after all is behind the greek noun in isaiah) means exactly
that- i.e.- to dedicate, set aside, set beside.
the noun, then, in its hebrew or greek incarnation means simply "a girl set
aside".
best
jim
+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Biblical Studies
Quartz Hill School of Theology
Biblical Studies Resources
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
"venite ad me omnes qui laboratis et onerati estis et ego reficiam vos"
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