Romans 10:20: Are all English translations in error?

Mark Wilson emory2oo2 at hotmail.com
Sat Nov 23 11:16:31 EST 2002


Richard wrote:
>
>>The Greek text shows Paul quotes Isaiah 65:1 exactly from the Septuagint. 
>>For some reason he changed the order of the two sentences


My problem with this statement is it assumes "the Septuagint" as
an existing document known to Paul and others. After reading Jobes and 
Silva's
treatment of the LXX, it seems to me that there were many translations
of the Hebrew scriptures into Greek. Paul may be said to have "changed the 
order"
of one of the Greek translations we have today, but his translation may have 
been
word for word if we understand there to have been many Greek translation 
available
to first century people.

It would be like arguing that I changed the order of the KJV. That may be 
true, but I may
be using another English translation.

My thoughts,

Mark Wilson


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