2 Peter 1:4
Jonathan Burke
jburke at sprint.net.au
Sun Nov 24 07:18:33 EST 2002
Hi Carl,
>
I think (2) is pretty clearly what is intended in our text; the sense of
FUSIS in 1 Cor 11 bears little relationship to its sense here.
>
Ok, that's fine, thanks.
>
You would do best to consult BDAG and/or L&N on FUSIS.
>
No problem, I'll do that.
>
Although I meant the citation from NET to be helpful, I feared it might lead
into broader matters of theological and general Biblical interpretation
which are inappropriate to BG list-discussion.
>
Yeah, well I didn't mean to go there, but I see what you mean.
>
You're now asking questions which the Greek text of our passage (2 Peter
1:4) cannot resolve. Please let's not go beyond what the Greek text of 2
Peter 1:4 actually indicates.
>
Sure, no problem. I'm not so much concerned with the theological meaning of
the text as the grammatical. All I wanted to know was whether or not this
was to be understood as future or present.
The answer, it seems, is that we can't say that it's something they received
in their present, or that it would be something they would receive in their
future.
Or that it's both. Or neither. At the same time.
I looked at Robertson's Word Pictures, and he was equally confusing.
Sometimes I really hate Greek tenses and moods.
Jonathan Burke.
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