CRISTOS IHSOUS vs. IHSOUS CRISTOS in Colossians

waldo slusher waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Fri Oct 4 10:02:04 EDT 2002



Brian McCarthy

> I was reading a commentary on Colossians that made a
> point about how the
> author of Colossians "consistently" uses CRISTOS
> IHSOUS, whereas the
> author of the undisputed Paulines uses IHSOUS
> CRISTOS more often -- this
> being taken as an indication of non-Pauline
> authorship.


I guess this might be more of a lower textual
criticism kind of question, but be that as it may,
there are many scholars, certainly the majority of
Evangelical scholars, who completely reject these
so-called non-Pauline letters. Bear in mind that it
was not uncommon for Paul or other writers to use
amanuenses to do their writings. There is no evidence
that Paul dictated his letters either. All in all, the
remarkable consistency of all letters ascribed to Paul
is overwhelming, IMHO.

Concerning your statistical approach, I think there is
nothing wrong with that. I am not sure how you can
account for stylistic variation in such a study. In a
paper I wrote, I used 'Jesus Christ' about 80 percent
of the time; I used 'Christ Jesus' about 15 percent.
The other 5 percent were 'the Lord'. 



=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AL

__________________________________________________
Do you Yahoo!?
New DSL Internet Access from SBC & Yahoo!
http://sbc.yahoo.com



More information about the B-Greek mailing list