Romans 7:3

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Mon Oct 14 23:33:30 EDT 2002


Forwarded for George Somsel <Polycarp66 at aol.com>
Date: Mon, 14 Oct 2002 19:16:24 EDT

In a message dated 10/14/2002 3:32:24 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
dmills at inebraska.com writes:

>Why is the noun in this clause, MOICALIS CRHMATISEI, in the nominative case?
>With an active verb, it appears the noun should be accusative unless the
>noun is the subject or unless the noun is functioning somewhat like a
>predicate nominative by renaming the subject (despite the active verb).  I
>noticed the same phenomenon in Polybius: CRHMATIZW BASILEUS.  Does this
>meaning of CRHMATIZW ever occur in the passive?
>


I think Carl answered this question already by referring to French and
German usage.  Perhaps some English speakers don't understand the German
and French and missed the point so I will attempt to give it an English
reference.

One of the glosses given for XRHMATIZW is 'bear a name' in addition to 'be
called'.  Let's use that.  It could then be said, "She will bear the name
'adultress'.  It's not precisely the same as the Greek since it is not a
predicate nominative.  Indeed, the word 'adultress' is an explication of
'name' and would still be in the objective case; but hopefully the point
will come across.

gfsomsel



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