Aorist vs. present infinitive in Matt 5:32
Clwinbery at aol.com
Clwinbery at aol.com
Sun Oct 20 14:09:36 EDT 2002
In a message dated 10/19/02 11:12:09 AM, jeffsmelser at ntgreek.net writes:
>
>
>Your further comments about divorce being forgiven and so on get into
>
>doctrinal/theological matters that are beyond the scope of this list, so
>
>I'll refrain from going down that road. But it seems apparent to me that
>
>your point is based on your doctrinal comments, not on what the grammar
>of
>
>Mt. 5:32 requires. Furthermore, it seems to me that you have a particular
>
>doctrinal viewpoint in mind which you oppose. I would only ask that you
>not
>
>assume I believe one cannot be forgiven of divorce or any other sin.
>
I want to call us back from the drift of this thread and say that if you
cannot comment on the Greek text and the phenomena of the text without
drifting off into interpretation of the whole GNT or making accusations about
other's motives, please do not post anything. To Ward I say DO NOT preach to
us. We are capable of applying the text to our own situations. And to Jeff I
say DO NOT make statements about the motives of others. If this continues, I
will call a halt to the thread.
Carlton Winbery
Co-moderator
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