Lk 1:55
Pere Porta Roca
pporta at tinet.fut.es
Mon Oct 21 11:52:19 EDT 2002
Luke 1:55 (Magnificat: end)
I'm wondering, is there any true difference of meaning between PROS +
accusative (PROS TOUS PATERAS hHMWN) and dative case (TWi ABRAAM)?
What may be the reason for the use of PROS + accusative in the first
part of the sentence and of the dative case (without a preposition) in
the second part?
In my opinion it would be "better" either PROS + accusative case in both
or the dative case in both...
What may be the reason for Luke having written as he did and not as I'm
suggesting?
What can you tell me and to the rest of the members of the list about
this?
(I don't know if this subject has already been dealed with. If so,
simply tell me and if possible send me the right answer to it)
Pay attention: it is my very first time I take part in an e-mail list on
Biblical Greek.
I'm sending this message from a twon near Barcelona (Catalonia,
northeastern Spain -- my mother language is catalan, not spanish). From
another side, I'm not mastering English...: be good and forgive any
mistake (of lexic, syntaxis...) I may make...
I deeply hope to enjoy this list for a long time!! I'm 56 year old ...
and I learned classical greek when I was a teenager! Compared to the
greek of classical and great greek authors, Koine is... something quite easy!
L. Besses
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