Lk 1:55

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Tue Oct 22 05:36:50 EDT 2002


Forwarded for George Somsel <Polycarp66 at aol.com>
Date: Mon, 21 Oct 2002 22:47:31 EDT

In a message dated 10/21/2002 3:47:47 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
pporta at tinet.fut.es writes:

>Luke 1:55 (Magnificat: end)
>
>I'm wondering, is there any true difference of meaning between PROS +
>accusative (PROS TOUS PATERAS hHMWN) and dative case (TWi ABRAAM)?
>
>What may be the reason for the use of PROS + accusative in the first
>part of the sentence and of the dative case (without a preposition) in
>the second part?
>
>In my opinion it would be "better" either PROS + accusative case in both
>or the dative case in both...
>
>What may be the reason for Luke having written as he did and not as I'm
>suggesting?
>What can you tell me and to the rest of the members of the list about
>this?
>


It would seem that LALEW + PROS is used somewhat seldom in the NT.  It
appears once in 1 Thess and once in Hebrews.  The greater usage is found in
Luke/Acts where the author does not consistently use LALEW + PROS but
resorts to LALEW + dative.  I am excluding the occurences of STOMA PROS
STOMA in the Johannine epistles.  Another usage is LALEW + META or MET' .
I would suggest that this is simply one of those stylistic variations to
avoid mere repetition.

gfsomsel



More information about the B-Greek mailing list