Tense and testable assertions

Mark Wilson emory2oo2 at hotmail.com
Sun Oct 27 16:54:59 EST 2002



> > John 13:31 hOTE OUN EXHLQEN, LEGEI IHSOUS: ***NUN *** EDOXASQH hO UIOS
> > TOU ANQRWPOU KAI hO QEOS EDOXASQH EN AUTW:
> >
> > Using Mari's interpretation, "now is the son of man glorified, and God
> > is glorified in him." The glorification does not refer to the past -
> > Jesus has not yet been crucified - it refers to the "now" in the
> > sentence. Exactly when is a matter of interpretation (the time of
> > Christ's crucifiction? the time of his ascending into heaven? the time
> > of his resurrection?), but it clearly isn't in the past.

<snip>

>In this case, could He be glorified in the present but not in the sense
>that one is thinking of glorification?  Isn't one's theology intruding?


I think the statement "it clearly isn't in the past" does overstate
it a bit.

One can take verse 31 to be referring to the historical earthly ministry of 
Jesus
which has run its course, signified by his giving the sop to Judas.
Nothing is left to be accomplished except the events leading to the cross 
now.... the public ministry phase is over.

Verse 32 uses the future tense for DOXAZW, which anticipates the cross.
And hence, the Aorist tense is not used.

I would think it a bit anachronistic to take verse 31 as looking
forward to the cross.

My thoughts,

Mark Wilson


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