On 1 Corinthians 14:2
Steven Lo Vullo
slovullo at mac.com
Sun Sep 22 01:51:01 EDT 2002
On Saturday, September 21, 2002, at 12:06 AM, waldo slusher wrote:
> hO GAR LALWN GLWSSHi OUK ANQRWPOIS LALEI ALLA QEWi,
> OUDEIS GAR AKOUEI, PNEUMATI DE LALEI MUSTHRIA
>
> I am trying to understand OUDEIS GAR AKOUEI.
>
> So far, I have something like, "The one speaking with
> a (particular) tongue or language does not speak to
> men but to (some, a) god."
Hi Waldo:
As Iver already said, it is not necessary for QEOS to have the article
in order for it to designate the one and only God whom Paul worshiped.
That this is what is in mind here is confirmed by a comparison with v.
26:
1 Cor 14.2 hO GAR LALWN GLWSSHi OUK ANQRWPOIS LALEI ALLA QEWi, OUDEIS
GAR AKOUEI, PNEUMATI DE LALEI MUSTHRIA
For the one speaking in a tongue does not speak to men but to God, for
no one understands him [except God], but he speaks mysteries in the
Spirit.
1Cor 14.28 EAN DE MH Hi DIERMHNEUTHS, SIGATW EN EKKLHSIAi, hEAUTWi DE
LALEITW KAI TWi QEWi
But if there is no interpreter [of tongues], let him keep silent in
church, and let him speak to himself and to God
In the first case there is no article; in the second there is. In the
first the indicative informs us that the person speaking in a tongue is
not speaking to men, since they do not understand him, but to God, who
(it is implied) does. In the second the imperative enjoins the tongues
speaker to keep silent if there is no interpreter, and to speak to
himself and to God, no doubt because, as stated earlier, people do not
understand him without an interpreter, whereas God does.
============
Steven R. Lo Vullo
Madison, WI
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