On 1 Corinthians 14:2

Steven Lo Vullo slovullo at mac.com
Sun Sep 22 01:51:01 EDT 2002


On Saturday, September 21, 2002, at 12:06 AM, waldo slusher wrote:

> hO GAR LALWN GLWSSHi OUK ANQRWPOIS LALEI ALLA QEWi,
> OUDEIS GAR AKOUEI, PNEUMATI DE LALEI MUSTHRIA
>
> I am trying to understand OUDEIS GAR AKOUEI.
>
> So far, I have something like, "The one speaking with
> a (particular) tongue or language does not speak to
> men but to (some, a) god."

Hi Waldo:

As Iver already said, it is not necessary for QEOS to have the article 
in order for it to designate the one and only God whom Paul worshiped. 
That this is what is in mind here is confirmed by a comparison with v. 
26:

1 Cor 14.2 hO GAR LALWN GLWSSHi OUK ANQRWPOIS LALEI ALLA QEWi, OUDEIS 
GAR AKOUEI, PNEUMATI DE LALEI MUSTHRIA
For the one speaking in a tongue does not speak to men but to God, for 
no one understands him [except God], but he speaks mysteries in the 
Spirit.

1Cor 14.28 EAN DE MH Hi DIERMHNEUTHS, SIGATW EN EKKLHSIAi, hEAUTWi DE 
LALEITW KAI TWi QEWi
But if there is no interpreter [of tongues], let him keep silent in 
church, and let him speak to himself and to God

In the first case there is no article; in the second there is. In the 
first the indicative informs us that the person speaking in a tongue is 
not speaking to men, since they do not understand him, but to God, who 
(it is implied) does. In the second the imperative enjoins the tongues 
speaker to keep silent if there is no interpreter, and to speak to 
himself and to God, no doubt because, as stated earlier, people do not 
understand him without an interpreter, whereas God does.
============

Steven R. Lo Vullo
Madison, WI




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