On 1 Corinthians 14:2

Richard A. Stauch rstauch at charter.net
Sun Sep 22 16:00:27 EDT 2002


Finally, I get something right!

Feeling better about it all,
Richard Allan Stauch
Long Beach, CA
http://www.rstauch.com
 

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Steven Lo Vullo [mailto:slovullo at mac.com]
> Sent: Sunday, September 22, 2002 12:49 PM
> To: Biblical Greek
> Subject: [b-greek] Re: On 1 Corinthians 14:2
> 
> On Sunday, September 22, 2002, at 10:49 AM, Richard A. Stauch wrote:
> 
> > It seems to me that we have glossed over an important point, that
the
> > "definite article" in Greek is not the same as it is in English.
Forms
> > of hO, hH and TO (the article in Greek) do not usually make their
> > subjects definite in the way that "the" does in English. They
underline
> > their subjects, or highlight them, adding emphasis. Smyth talks
about
> > this in sections 1099-ff. See particularly sections 1126-1130 with
> > respect to this question. In section 1126, Smyth writes, "The
article
> > is
> > often omitted ... when a word is sufficiently definite by itself."
> > Remember that QEOS is a common, not a proper noun, so it is not the
> > name
> > of the deity (which would usually take the article). In context,
> > therefore, QEWi does not need the article to make it definite in
verse
> > 2.
> 
> Yes, all that is true. But just saying that QEWi does not *need* the
> article (which both Iver and I said) to make it definite, doesn't in
> itself determine whether QEWi in 1 Cor 14.2 should be understood as
> indefinite or definite, "a god," or "God." Contextual indicators are
> necessary for that, which is why I offered the parallel from v. 28. Of
> course, there are closer contextual indicators, but I chose v. 28
> because of the verbal parallels.
> ============
> 
> Steven R. Lo Vullo
> Madison, WI





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