On 1 Corinthians 14:2
waldo slusher
waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Mon Sep 23 13:19:11 EDT 2002
Mark
> I would recommend reading Dr. John MacArthur for
> more on this
> position that I have probably poorly misrepresented.
> Suffice it to
> say that what was going on in 1 Corinthians was
> something that Paul
> was trying to stop, at least the illegitimate
> "speaking in tongues"
> that can easily be distinguished in this chapter
> from the legitimate
> gift (which only rarely appears, and then, Paul
> reminds them that this
> gift is for the unbeliever, not the believer [vs.
> 22]).
I did just check MacArthur on this and was equally
amazed as I was with your last post. My first thought
was that you misunderstood my question, but MacArthur
has shown the Paul uses GLWSSH in two different ways
in this chapter, primarily distinguished with the
singular and plural uses. I had never considered TWO
forms of "tongues" in this chapter. What do you think
about his idea of this switching back and forth
between the plural and singular? What caught me mostly
by surprise was MacArthur's explanation that you
cannot have a plurality of unintelligible languages.
Which I understood him to mean that you cannot have
three different unintelligible languages. Does that
make sense that you can have different known languages
(French, German, English), but you cannot have
multiple unknown languages? I really do not have much
background understanding of the mystery religions, but
he does mention that speaking in unintelligible
languages was common practice among the pagan. If this
is getting off topic, please respond to me privately.
=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AL
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