Lk 2:32 EN TOIS ... (Luke in Codex Bezae issue)

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Wed Sep 25 19:53:17 EDT 2002


For George Somsel:

>From: Polycarp66 at aol.com
>Date: Wed, 25 Sep 2002 19:46:19 EDT


>In a message dated 9/25/2002 4:57:04 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
>cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu writes:
>
>>
>>D05 :FWS EIS APOKALUYIN KAI DOXAN
>>NA27: FWS EIS APOKALUYIN EQNWN KAI DOXAN
>>
>>Chabert: What justification is there for the usual translation: "a light
>>for revelation to the Gentiles" (e.g. NET), with genitive EQNWN regarded as
>>a dative of interest?
>>
>
>
>Lk 2.32 is, of course, a reference to the LXX of Is 42.6 which is a
>translation of the MT
>
>W:):eT.eN:Kf LiB:RiT (fM L:)W.R G.oWYiM
>
>which literally is
>"I have made you by covenant a people for light of the gentiles"
>
>Here the construct relation between L:)W.R and G.oWYiM parallels the
>relationship between APOKALUYIN and EQNWN.  It is not FWS which is
>followed by the genitive (comparable to the construct relation in Hebrew).
>APOKALUYIN has been interjected to define what the function of FWS is to
>be -- a light FOR REVELATION.  This does not, however, answer the question
>of the function of the genitive in this construction but pushes it back
>one level to the translator(s) of the LXX.  The translators might have
>simply chosen the genitive due to certain similarities between the status
>constructus in Hebrew and the genitive in Greek.  It does not completely
>answer the question of what function the genitive serves in the
>construction.
>
>A. T. Robertson in his _A Grammar of the Greek New Testament_, pp. 499 ff.
>speaks of the 'objective genitive'.  He notes that in Mk 11.22 EXETE
>PISTIN QEOU is rightly translated "have faith IN God" though the genitive
>does not mean 'in'. Similarly he notes that in Acts 4.9 EPI EUERGESIAi
>ANQRWPOU ASQENOUS it is a good deed which is done 'to' the sick man.  "In
>Col 2:18, QRHSKEIAi TWN AGGELWN, it is worship 'paid to' angels, while EIS
>THN hUPAKOUHN TOU XRISTOU (2 Cor. 10:5) is obedience 'to' Christ.
>
>Dan Wallace in _Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics_, pp. 116 ff. notes that
>the key to the identification of the objective genitive is the ability to
>convert a noun having a verbal idea into a verbal form and turn the
>genitive into the direct object.  He also notes that "A simpler and less
>fool-proof method is to supply for the word *of* the words *for, about,
>concerning, toward,* or sometimes *against*."
>
>In the case at hand we have a noun which has a verbal idea -- FWS
>(FWTIZW).  It works quite well to convert this to "to enlighten the
>gentiles".  The problem is that APOKALUYIS has been inserted to define the
>purpose of the 'enlightenment.'
>
>gfsomsel





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