Lk 2:32 EN TOIS ... (Luke in Codex Bezae issue)
Glendon Gross
gross at xinetd.ath.cx
Thu Sep 26 02:40:47 EDT 2002
I may be out of my depth here, but again I can't help noticing a footnote
in one of my translations, a NASB, which lists this verse in all capitals,
meaning the footnote implies that the writer is quoting Isaiah 42:6-7,
which appears as follows in my LXX:
EGO KURIOS hO QEOS EKALESA SE EN DIKAIOSUNH, KAI KRATHSW THS XEIROS SOU,
KAI ENISXUSW SE, KAI EDWKA SE EIS DIAQHKHN GENOUS,
EIS FWS EQNWN, ANOIXAI OFQALMOUS TUFLWN, EXAGAGEIN EK DESMWN DEDEMENOUS
KAI EX OIKOU FULAKAS, KAI KAQHMENOUS EN SKOTEI.
Because these are the words of Simeon after having laid eyes on the Christ
child, it may have been important for the author of Luke to show the
significance of the child "to the nations", since the author of Luke is
coming from such a literary, cosmopolitan perspective. My received text
for Luke 2:32 uses the same word, EQNWN.
Another possibility (also a footnote in my NASB) is that Simeon [in
Luke's Eyes] is quoting Isaiah 49:6, where my LXX reads
KAI EIPE MOI, MEGA SOI ESTI TOU KLHQHNAI SE PAIDA MOU, TOU STHSAI TAS
FULAS IAKWB, KAI THN DIASPORAN TOU ISRAHL EPISTREPSAI. IDOU DEDWKA SE EIS
DIAQHKHN GENOUS, EIS FWS EQNWN, TOU EINAI SE EIS SWTHRIAN hEWS ESXATOU THS
GHS.
Clearly this was a concept that would have appealed to the political
radicals in Luke's audience. Those who had the nationalistic fervor were
expecting this baby to unite the Jewish nation and defeat Rome, were they
not? If so, then it seems an appropriate literary device for the author
of Luke to put these words in Simeon's mouth, since this is the
explanation for why the old man can now go to his grave in peace. He has
actually seen "EIS FWS EQNWN". [the light of the nations.] As an old man
about to die, one would expect Simeon to be familiar with the LXX and I am
sure it would not be surprising to an audience of his contemporaries to
hear him quote this scripture, being the religious man that he was. My
feeling is that the presence of "EQNWN" strengthens the idea that Simeon
is quoting a prophecy from Isaiah.
I would speculate that if EQNWN is omitted in Codex Bezae, then maybe
it is omitted because it was added later? Without knowing the background
surrounding Codex Bezae, I am intrigued by the idea that EQNWN may have
been added later since the KJV translators used much later manuscripts,
dating from the 12th century if I am not mistaken. Does anyone know if
there are other manuscripts that agree with Codex Bezae in the omission of
the word EQNWN from Luke 2:32?
On Wed, 25 Sep 2002, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
> Date: Wed, 25 Sep 2002 16:55:32 -0400
> From: Carl W. Conrad <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
> To: Biblical Greek <b-greek at franklin.metalab.unc.edu>
> Cc: "Sylvie Chabert [iso-8859-1] d'Hyères" <laodicy at ifrance.com>
> Subject: [b-greek] Lk 2:32 EN TOIS ... (Luke in Codex Bezae issue)
>
> Corrected: earlier post indicated Lk 2:49
>
> D05 :FWS EIS APOKALUYIN KAI DOXAN
> NA27: FWS EIS APOKALUYIN EQNWN KAI DOXAN
>
> Chabert: What justification is there for the usual translation: "a light
> for revelation to the Gentiles" (e.g. NET), with genitive EQNWN regarded as
> a dative of interest?
>
> --
>
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
> Most months:: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
> cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad at ioa.com
> WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
>
> ---
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