The implied verb in Eph 2:8
Toby Anderson
kjvonly21 at hotmail.com
Sat Sep 28 14:09:53 EDT 2002
Hello,
I've been mulling over the 'implied verb' in the italicized words 'it
is' in Eph 2:8.
Some argue, the implied verb should come after 'touto' (that). Others
argue that it shouldn't be there at all. I would like to postulate a
theory and get your feedback. ok?
There is a semi-colon after faith (pistews) in Friberg's 'Analytical Greek
New Testament'. This is helpful as it indicates that the stuff after
'pistews' might be a clause.
'touto' (that) is dative, indicating an object ---- an object of a
verb... but there is no verb in eph 2:8 except 'are saved' which is in the
previous 'clause'.
If 'touto' is part of a separate clause, then the verb must be
implied, right?
'dwron' (gift) is nominative, hence, the subject --- the subject
needs a verb, but, once again, there is no verb in eph 2:8
except 'are saved'. If 'dwron' is part of a separate clause, then the
verb must be implied, right?
So, what we have is:
<an object of a verb> <no verb>, and <the subject>
In English, the subject usually comes first, so we have:
'The gift of God' <no verb> 'that not of yourselves'
I believe 'that' is a pronominal adjective, hence 'that' is short
for 'that' and an antecedental 'noun', the identification of which is
not necessary for what I'm discussin right noun.
So, if the 'understood' verb is 'is', we have:
'The gift of God' <is> 'that' <antecedental noun> 'not of yourselves'.
What do you all think?
Jesus bless us lively stones!
Toby
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