[B-Greek] PRO DE THS hEORTHS TOU PASCA - John 13:1
Roe
d.roe at t-online.de
Sat Apr 5 12:06:42 EST 2003
Carl W. Conrad wrote:
> I think what you're asking is more a matter of how best to English the
> Greek rather than how to understand the Greek. Certainly the PRO + genitive
> phrase is adverbial as is the participial phrase EIDWS hOTI ...; both
> depend upon the main verb HGAPHSEN. Your suggested version is more literal,
> but what you cite as "the usual translation" does not distort the sense so
> much as rearrange it into a more intelligible or normal English word-order.
> I don't think you should expect translations to convey literally the exact
> construction of the Greek; I personally think it is enough to convey the
> sense of the Greek original in clear and intelligible format in the target
> language; that's difficult enough to do. But all this is really a matter of
> translation theory, not of how the Greek text in this instance is to be
> understood.
> --
Hi and thanks, Carl.
I was looking at the possibility that it already is passover, and that
PRO DE THS hEORTHS TOU PASCA indicates only that Jesus' knowledge that
his hour had come was "pre-passover" knowledge, without indicating the
passover-relative time of the activity in subsequent verses.
David
D.W. Roe
Rheinland-Pfalz, Germany
I had written:
> >PRO DE THS hEORTHS TOU PASCA EIDWS hO IHSOUS hOTI HLQEN AUTOU hH hWRA
> >[...] EIS TELOS HGAPHSEN AUTOUS
> >
> >(John 13:1)
> >
> >The text above is often translated something like: "Now (it was) before
> >the feast of passover; Jesus knowing his hour had come ... loved them
> >unto the end"
> >
> >Would the first part of this verse better be translated: "Jesus, knowing
> >already before the feast of the passover that his hour had come ...
> >loved them unto the end"? [...]
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