[B-Greek] Romans 1:16-17
Eric Weiss
eweiss at gte.net
Mon Apr 7 21:49:42 EDT 2003
> Am I missing something here? Are these possibilities?
> Clipping from Romans 1:16-17 "OU GAR EPAISXUNOMAI TO EUANGELION
[TOU
> XRISTOU], DUNAMIS GAR QEOU ESTIN....
> DIKAIOSUNH GAR QEOU EN AUTW...."
> Assuming the majority text version here, what are the reasons why
Christ is
> not the subject in the phrases that follow...either in "DUNAMIS GAR
QEOU
> ESTIN" (For He is the power of God....instead of...it is the power of
God)
> And also: "DIKAIOSUNH GAR QEOU EN AUTW" For in Him a
righteousness has
> been revealed.... vs For in it a righteousness has been revealed....
> Thank you!
> David Bielby
> dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org
> www.bloomingtonvineyard.org
Grammatically I think it's possible, but I would guess it refers to TO
EUAGGELION because TO EUAGGELION is viewed as what Paul is writing about
(Romans 1:15), and in I Cor. 1:18 he describes hO LOGOS ... hO TOU
STAUROU as being DUNAMIS QEOU. I.e., the message he preaches is the
power of God for salvation, and in Romans 1, he's preaching TO
EUAGGELION. True, in I Cor. 1:30 Christ is described as becoming
DIKAIOSUNH for us -- but since the implied pronoun for ESTIN (DUNAMIS
GAR THEOU ESTIN) in Romans 1:16 is likely TO EUAGGELLION for the reasons
I just suggested, the AUTWi in Romans 1:17 (DIKAIOSUNH GAR THEOU EN
AUTWi) would I think also likely have the same antecedent, i.e., TO
EUAGGELION.
- - -
Eric Weiss
http://home1.gte.net/vzn05pnm/index.htm
S.D.G.
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list