[B-Greek] PAROUSIA
Daniel Glick
lists at danielglick.com
Thu Apr 10 12:29:07 EDT 2003
Rolf:
I apologize if I was unclear... I'm not advocating the rendering of
PAROUSIA as 'coming'. In fact, I agree with you--from my very limited
knowledge of Greek--that 'presence' is probably the correct translation.
However, as you are undoubtedly aware, making an argument about the
meaning of a Greek word merely based on its closest English equivalent
would be the height of folly.
So staying within the realm of Greek, there are three lexical issues here:
1. What is the literal meaning of PAROUSIA? Undoubtedly, it means
'presence', plain and simple. I take it we agree on that.
2. What other connotations did PAROUSIA have in the first century? Ann
Nyland has given evidence to show that it referred to a person's
arrival. This is not necessarily punctilliar. A person's arrival, after
all, would be followed by their presence. That is why the word PAROUSIA
is used. The person's entire presence is being referred to... but the
/emphasis/ is on their arrival.
3. What meaning did PAROUSIA have to the first-century congregation?
This can only be determined by a study of the word's usage in the NT;
and since it's very difficult to keep that separate from theology, I'll
e-mail you about it off-list.
Just to address a couple of your more relevant arguments on-list:
> Do they ask for a sign *before* the PAROUSIA (to the effect that it is
> best rendered "coming"), or do they ask for a sign indicating that the
> PAROUSIA has begun (to the effect that it is best rendered "presence")?
I'm afraid that you are conflating the translational and interpretive
issues here. Even if the correct rendering is 'presence', the disciples
could still be asking for a sign that the presence was imminent.
> their question could simply mean: "When you return to the land of
> Israel, if you are in an area where we are not, what is the sign that
> you have returned, so we can start looking for you?" Jesus' words in
> Matthew 24:23-27 could imply that Jesus understood the question in
> this way:
That passage begins: TOTE EAN TIS hUMIN EIPH. What is the referent of
TOTE here? As I mentioned, I am a Greek novice, but my understanding is
that TOTE, like the English word 'then', can refer either to a time
period previous mentioned, or to the next time period in a sequence of
events.
If we take the first possibility, then it would appear to be referring
to the time of the QLIFIS MEGALH in v21. If we take the second
possibility, then it refers to a time following the QLIFIS. Either way,
it is not referring to the PAROUSIA.
> The conclusion on the basis of the points above is that the primary
> tool for an understanding of PAROUSIA is the context of the NT.
I would entirely agree. So I will send you more meterial in that regard
off-list.
Christian Regards,
Dan Glick
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