[B-Greek] John 19:13,17 GABBAQA and GOLGAQA

Jason Hare jhronline at yahoo.com
Thu Apr 17 07:15:17 EDT 2003


Glen,

Basically, the NIV says "Aramaic" because these words
follow Aramaic structure. They are not Hebrew. ;-)

To put it simply, Aramaic uses a final ALEF to
represent the article ("the") while Hebrew uses an
initial HEH. The A (alpha) at the termination of both
GABBAQA and GOLGAQA represent the Aramaic article,
which demonstrates that the words are Aramaic rather
than Hebrew.

I know this is slightly off-topic, but I thought I'd
give a brief response...

Regards,
Jason Hare

--- Glen L Naftaniel <glensmail at juno.com> wrote:
> Hello, I have a question regarding the words GABBAQA
> and GOLGAQA.
> 
> In the NIV John 19:13 says  "...(which in Aramaic is
> Gabbatha)."
> 
> In the NIV John 19:17 says "...(which in Aramaic is
> called Golgotha)."
> 
> In the KJV John 19:13 says "... but in the Hebrew,
> Gabbatha" 
> 
> In the KJV John 19:17 says, "... which is called in
> the Hebrew Golgotha:"
> 
> Why does the KJV say Hebrew and the NIV say Aramaic?
>  I have heard that
> when the NT refers to Hebrew is it referring to
> Aramaic.  Is this
> correct?  
> 
> God bless,
> 
> Glen Naftaniel
> ---
> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
> B-Greek mailing list
> B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek


__________________________________________________
Do you Yahoo!?
New DSL Internet Access from SBC & Yahoo!
http://sbc.yahoo.com


More information about the B-Greek mailing list