[B-Greek] John 19:13,17 GABBAQA and GOLGAQA
Jason Hare
jhronline at yahoo.com
Thu Apr 17 07:15:17 EDT 2003
Glen,
Basically, the NIV says "Aramaic" because these words
follow Aramaic structure. They are not Hebrew. ;-)
To put it simply, Aramaic uses a final ALEF to
represent the article ("the") while Hebrew uses an
initial HEH. The A (alpha) at the termination of both
GABBAQA and GOLGAQA represent the Aramaic article,
which demonstrates that the words are Aramaic rather
than Hebrew.
I know this is slightly off-topic, but I thought I'd
give a brief response...
Regards,
Jason Hare
--- Glen L Naftaniel <glensmail at juno.com> wrote:
> Hello, I have a question regarding the words GABBAQA
> and GOLGAQA.
>
> In the NIV John 19:13 says "...(which in Aramaic is
> Gabbatha)."
>
> In the NIV John 19:17 says "...(which in Aramaic is
> called Golgotha)."
>
> In the KJV John 19:13 says "... but in the Hebrew,
> Gabbatha"
>
> In the KJV John 19:17 says, "... which is called in
> the Hebrew Golgotha:"
>
> Why does the KJV say Hebrew and the NIV say Aramaic?
> I have heard that
> when the NT refers to Hebrew is it referring to
> Aramaic. Is this
> correct?
>
> God bless,
>
> Glen Naftaniel
> ---
> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
> B-Greek mailing list
> B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
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