[B-Greek] No Subject
Clwinbery at aol.com
Clwinbery at aol.com
Mon Apr 21 20:56:45 EDT 2003
In a message dated 4/21/03 6:39:44 PM, bertdehaan at gosympatico.ca writes:
>First I would like to thank the ones who have responded (both on and off
>list) to my last two questions. I should have checked the archives before
>I posted the questions, I'll try to do that from now on.
>
>I have another question (one I could not find an answer to in the archives).
>In John 18:13 we are told that after his arrest, Jesus was first led to
>Annas, the father-in -law of Caiaphas, who was high priest at that time.
>Verses 19-23 tells about the questioning by the high priest.
>And in verse 24 it says;APESTEILEV OUN AUTON hO hANNAS DEDEMENON PROS KAIAFAN
>TON ARCIEREA.
>When I first read this passage I assumed that the questioning had been
>done by Annas because that was were Jesus had been led. It says however
>that the high priest was doing the questioning. Jesus had not been led
>to Caiaphas until verse 24, assuming that this narrative is in chronological
>order. The NASB, the RSV, and the NIV translate it that way. The King James
>version (as well as the Dutch translation of 1637) translates it "Now Annas
>had sent him bound unto Caiaphas the high priest". This does solve the
>problem because now it appears that Jesus was led to Annas who then sent
>him to Caiaphas for questioning.
>What I would like to know is if the pluperfect translation (that is what
>it is, isn't it?) of APESTEILEN is valid.
>Thank you in advance?
>Bert de Haan, Arthur Ontario.
First the verb APESTEILEN is aorist. The perfect is APESTALKEN and thus the
pluperfect built on the same stem would be APESTALKEIN (first person-third =
-LEI).
The problems of order in this part of John are notorious. Since this type of
discussion is independent of the Greek, it is best to look in any critical
commentary.
Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College
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