[B-Greek] 1 John3:1 - 'called' by whom?
Greg Stovell
stovell at viconet.net
Wed Apr 23 14:00:25 EDT 2003
I'm new to the lists, and looking at the lectionary reading for May 4
(I hope it's not too early to post)
1 John 3:1 INA TEKNA QEOU KLHQWMEN (in order that we may/should be
called children of God)
Is there anything in the grammar that tells us WHO should call us
'children of God'? My initial reading is that KLHQWMEN is not
necessarily pointing to the Father doing the action. Does this imply
that neither the Father, nor ourselves (since it is passive) call us
children of God, but that this action relies on others (outsiders
maybe)?
The implications are interesting, but I'd like to know if I'm jumping
to conclusions the text does not offer.
Rev. Greg R. Stovell
First Presbyterian Church at Caldwell, NJ
Associate Pastor
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