[B-Greek] Subjunctive Aorist

Steven Lo Vullo slovullo at mac.com
Wed Apr 30 03:41:44 EDT 2003


On Tuesday, April 29, 2003, at 11:06 PM, JPitaly41 at aol.com wrote:

> We have the use of the subjunctive which does indicate the aspect of 
> futurity but with the possibility that this may not happen, without 
> getting into a doctrinal statement i will refrain from saying why this 
> may not happen(I'd be happy to talk about it off-list if anyone so 
> desires). One would think that the future indicative would be used for 
> future statements of absolute surety. "will" should be reserved for 
> sure events of the future which occur in the indicative mood.

There is no need to get into doctrine here. The above assertion is 
simply not borne out by the facts. The subjunctive in a purpose clause 
**in and of itself** cannot help us determine whether the writer or 
speaker thinks there is a possibility that the purposed action or event 
will not happen. This is a simplistic and reductionistic view of the 
construction that does not take into account other factors that may 
clarify whether or not the writer or speaker considers the purpose 
certain or not. The subjunctive is normally used in a purpose clause 
because a purpose by its very nature is unfulfilled at the point of 
intention. This has nothing to do with the certainty or lack thereof of 
the purpose being fulfilled. Whether there is a possibility that the 
purpose will not be fulfilled must be determined by other 
considerations. For example, one must consider whether or not the 
person who intends an outcome has the ability and determination to 
fulfill the purpose, as well as the nature of the intended outcome 
itself. There are so many exceptions to your above formula that it 
would be impossible to list them all here, so I will offer just one 
that disproves the universal assertion you have made:

2 Cor 5.10 TOUS GAR PANTAS hHMAS FANERWQHNAI DEI EMPROSQEN TOU BHMATOS 
TOU CRISTOU, hINA KOMISHTAI hEKASTOS TA DIA TOU SWMATOS PROS  hA 
EPRAXEN, EITE AGAQON EITE FAULON.

Note that Paul portrays all of us (TOUS ... PANTAS hHMAS) appearing 
before the judgment seat of Christ as **necessary** and thus 
**certain** (FANERWQHNAI DEI). He further portrays the **purpose** of 
this necessary event as being the reception of each one's due for the 
things done in the body, whether good or evil. Does anyone really think 
Paul has in mind that once the **necessary** and **certain** appearance 
before the judgment seat of Christ occurs, God's very purpose for that 
appearance may fail to materialize? Paul certainly does not doubt that 
the divine purpose will be fulfilled. This is a case where the person 
who purposes has both the ability and determination to fulfill the 
purpose. And the nature of the purpose is such that another 
**necessary** and certain event is rendered meaningless without its 
stated purpose being fulfilled.

It should also be noted that hINA may be used to mark a consecutive 
clause (result) with the subjunctive (see BDAG 3.; L-N 89.49), and 
sometimes it is not easy to determine whether purpose or result is 
intended. Note the important comments in BDAG in this regard:

"In many cases purpose and result cannot be clearly differentiated, and 
hence hINA is used for the result that follows according to the purpose 
of the subj. or of God. As in Semitic and Gr-Rom. thought, purpose and 
result are identical in declarations of the divine will" (see examples 
there).
============

Steven R. Lo Vullo
Madison, WI



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