[B-Greek] Accusative in John 2:11

Rob Matlack united_by_truth at myrealbox.com
Wed Aug 6 10:34:54 EDT 2003


TAUTHN EPOIHSE THN ARCHN TWN SHMEIWN hO IHSOUS EN KANA THS GALILAIAS
I have two questions concerning this first clause of 2:11. First, the NET Bible note
reads: "Jesus did this as the first of his miraculous signs. The sentence in Greek
involves an object-complement construction. The force can be either 'Jesus did this
as,' or possibly 'Jesus made this to be,' The latter translation accents not only
Jesus' power but his sovereignty too. Cf. also 4:54." I can see how this could be
construed as and object-compliment construction, but could it not also be a simple
appositive, so the NIV and ESV.

Second, some manuscripts omit the THN before ARCHN. Is there any significant
difference in meaning? Does the presence of the article lend itself more to the simple
accusative understanding?

Rob Matlack	     united_by_truth at myrealbox.com
Stilwell, OK
"I can only say that I am nothing but a poor sinner, trusting in Christ alone for
salvation"--R. E. Lee
"It is not our task to secure the triumph of truth, but merely to fight on its
behalf."--Blaise Pascal

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