[B-Greek] EIS TA IDIA - John 1:11

Barry Hofstetter nebarry.bh at verizon.net
Fri Aug 8 09:38:49 EDT 2003


I had originally responded to this from the wrong email address.  First my
original response, and then my response to Carlton below.

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Erich Vaughan Burton" <zaxciel at hotmail.com>
To: "B-Greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, August 08, 2003 5:12 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] EIS TA IDIA - John 1:11


>>Robertson and Vincent both say "EIS TA IDIA"
means "unto his own things".


I understand why it is translated as "own things"
since "TA IDIA" is a plural neuter

However, in light of the passage this seemed to be too general and vague,
so I searched the Internet to see what others might have said and
I found this explanation:<<

********************************************************************************
******************

What is signified by "His own" twice repeated in this text? It reads in the
original,
"He came EIS TA IDIA and HOI IDIOI received Him not." The facts in the case
must supply the words understood. Jesus came to His own kingdom, or realm,
but His own people, the Jews, who are the "children of the kingdom,"
did not receive Him, but rejected, and crucified Him.
The reading is, then, "He came EIS TA IDIA BASILEIA into His own realm,
and HOI IDIOI LAOI His own people did not receive Him

********************************************************************************
******************

>>This seems reasonable to me and fits in with the context.

But since the commentator is adding words that are not in the
original text, I would like to know what others think regarding the
interpretation of
"EIS TA IDIA".<<

Well, I think it is an unnecessary specification of the text.  One of the
advantages of using the neuter plural in such contexts is that is includes as
much as is possible to include, much as we do when we talk about "things" and
don't want to be more specific in our text.  At the risk of making a more
exegetical/theological observation, *kingdom* is not as big a theme in John as
in the synoptics.  Considering the "cosmic" scope of the prologue, it might be
better to take TA IDIA in the broadest possible sense, rather than restrict it
to "realm" or "kingdom."

----- Original Message ----- 
From: <Clwinbery at aol.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, August 08, 2003 9:26 AM
Subject: Fwd: [B-Greek] EIS TA IDIA - John 1:11


> The phrase TA IDIA BASILEIA won't work because TA IDIA is neuter acc. plural
> while BASILEIA is fem. nom. sing.
>
> Carlton Winbery
> Louisiana College

Carlton, that was my first though as well, but a quick check in LSJ will confirm
that hH BASILEIA was originally a substantive of the adjective BASILEIOS.  While
I think it unlikely that John, in the Koine period, would use that particular
form (I think he would have used BASILIKOS instead), it is not out of the realm
of theoretical possibility.  However, the unnamed commentator's suggestion is
quite theoretical, I should think...

N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Associate Pastor, Chinese Gospel Church
Professor of Theological and Biblical Studies
 The Center for Urban Theological Studies
         Philadelphia, PA
http://mysite.verizon.net/vze1yfx7/






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