[B-Greek] Follow up to Mitch's AGAPAW and FILEW
waldo slusher
waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Sun Aug 17 21:50:06 EDT 2003
On this comment something simply must be said...
> 5) Jesus didn't really speak in Greek, but in Hebrew
> or Aramaic, and
> those languages don't have such a pair of words.
> Thus in Peshitta same
> word is used in John 21.
The first part is poor speculation. John, an unlearned
fisherman, was quite fluent in Greek. To survive as a
businessman in first century Palestine, if you didn't
speak Greek you didn't do business. I consider it
absurd to contend that Jesus did not speak Greek
(fluently), among other languages.
On the Peshitta: it is wrong. If it is unable to show
that different words were used, then it is unable to
accurately represent the original Gospel. It would not
be a translation but an approximation of the original.
Baur has long since shown the fallacy of applying one
meaning of a word/phrase to all contexts. If it could
be shown that FILEW is used synonymously with AGAPAW
in John 21, that alone tells us nothing about the
SEMANTIC differences the words contain. When words are
used synonymously, and just about any two words can,
all you are observing is the PRAGMATIC usage of words
in a particular context, not their SEMANTICS.
=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AB
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