[B-Greek] PEIRASMOS in James 1:13: Follow-up

reznik1 at juno.com reznik1 at juno.com
Mon Aug 18 09:54:30 EDT 2003


I still have a problem in understanding the beginning of the verse, MHDEIS PEIRAZWMENOS LEGETO hOTI APO QEOU PEIRAZOMAI... I have heard here a lot concerning what to be tempted/tested by evil maight mean. But that comes AFTER James insists that none should say he is tested by G-d. He doesn't specify here that the one tested "by evil" mustn't say so. He just says MHDEIS PEIRAZWMENOS, which IMHO means PEIRAZWMENOS in any way. And from the context, it seams that he may mean all the trials mentioned above. Thus it looks like James insists that G-d cannot test at all. But how can it be? 

Sincerely,
Dmitriy Reznik

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