[B-Greek] articles on PEIRASMOS

Iver iver_larsen at sil.org
Wed Aug 20 14:20:57 EDT 2003


>
> [Jonathan:] Another verse where PEIRAZW seems to have a meaning linked to
> temptation is Galations 6:1:
>
> Gal 6:1 (WEB) Brothers, even if a man is caught in some fault, you who
> are spiritual must restore such a one in a spirit of gentleness;
> looking to yourself so that you also aren't tempted.
>
> The last phrase of this in Greek is: SKOPWN SEAUTON, MH KAI SU PEIRASQHS.
>
> In this context, the implication seems to be that if someone else has
> fallen into sin, and we engage with them, we may also face temptation
> through this contact. I do not know how to construe this verse
> without the sense of temptation.
>
> How do you interpret these verses?

Well, I would agree with you and Carl contra Jeffrey.
As a translator I am often faced with the dilemma of having to choose
between two or more words where only one word is used in the original. Such
a choice cannot be made from the word alone, but only from the other words
used in the context. Sometimes the choice is difficult. This dilemma applies
to PEIRAZW as used in the GNT (not in the LXX or other Greek literature as
far as I know.)
There seems to be two crucial contextual factors:
1. Who is the agent?
2. What was the intent?

When God PEIRAZEI people, I would say that the appropriate word in English
is "test" or "try", but never "tempt". The intention and hope is that the
one being tested will indeed pass the test and come out stronger afterwards.
The result may be failure, but that was never the purpose.
When people PEIRAZEI God, the sense is different. Here it refers to people
disobeying God. In a sense they are testing the limits of his mercy.
When the devil PEIRAZEI people, the intent is evil and his hope is that the
one being tempted or tested will fail the test. It is because of that evil
intent that the Devil is called the "tempter" in Mat 4:3, 1 Cor 7:5 and 1 Th
3:5. It is my understanding that the semantic range of "tempt" in English is
more narrow than and contained within the semantic range of "test". The
Devil was testing Jesus, but his intent and hope was surely that Jesus would
fail, and therefore it was not only a test, but a temptation. It is not the
event itself that gives the distinction between a test/trial and a
temptation, but the intention of the agent. Or said in another way: a
temptation is a specific kind of testing with evil intent that God does not
do.
I cannot see it is important whether the stimulus for a temptation is from
within or ultimately from the devil or his demons. I don't think the NT
makes a clear distinction between these two.

Iver Larsen

---
Outgoing mail is certified Virus Free.
Checked by AVG anti-virus system (http://www.grisoft.com).
Version: 6.0.456 / Virus Database: 256 - Release Date: 18-02-2003




More information about the B-Greek mailing list