[B-Greek] articles on PEIRASMOS
reznik1 at juno.com
reznik1 at juno.com
Wed Aug 20 15:25:59 EDT 2003
--- "Iver" <iver_larsen at sil.org> wrote:
> Devil was testing Jesus, but his intent and hope was surely that Jesus would
fail, and therefore it was not only a test, but a temptation.
Iver,
I am confused. If the word PEIRAZW has never had such meaning as "temptation", how can we interpret it in this way? If we are not always able to understand what the passage says, should we attribute new meanings to words? If for ancient people to PEIRAZEIN meant to test, how would they understand NT authors, if they had suddenly started using words in new meanings?
And test is test, whatever purpose it may have. The purpose doesn't change the meaning of the word. When you say, "his intent and hope was surely that Jesus would fail, and therefore it was not only a test, but a temptation.", you admit, that it was a test. Of course, for that test satan used temptation, but it has nothing to do with the word PEIRAZW itself.
E.g. one may test something to check its reliability, or to make it better, or because of curiosity, or because his friend asked him to do it, or because it was his mother's last will, or with any other purpose we might make up. Should we make up also a different word because of so many different purposes? Should a translation necessarily reflect purpose of the test? I don't think so.
You agree that it was test, and that word is good enough for translation.
Sincerely,
Dmitriy Reznik
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