[B-Greek] articles on PEIRASMOS
Jonathan Robie
jwrobie at mindspring.com
Wed Aug 20 15:44:33 EDT 2003
reznik1 at juno.com wrote:
> I am confused. If the word PEIRAZW has never had such meaning as
> "temptation", how can we interpret it in this way?
Now I am confused. I thought the question being asked was whether PEIRAZW can carry the meaning "to tempt" in the New Testament. Are you saying that it can't because it never had such meaning? But aren't we looking at the text for the very purpose of determining whether it can have that meaning?
Of course, we would do well to consult the conclusions of others who have done such research. BDAG and Spicq agree that PEIRAZW can have this meaning.
And LSJ agrees, providing references to non-biblical literature as well as biblical literature:
II. c. acc. pers., try, tempt a person, put him to the test, LXX Ge.22.1, al. ; heautous peirazete, ei . . 2 Ep.Cor.13.5, al.; ti peirazete ton Kurion ; LXX Ex. 17.2, cf. Act.Ap. 15.10, 1 Ep.Cor. 10.9, al.
2. in bad sense, seek to seduce, tempt, Athênaiên A.R. 3.10 : abs., ho peirazôn the Tempter, 1 Ep.Thess. 3.5, etc. :--Pass., to be sorely tried, peirazomenê basanizomai PLit.Lond. 52.5 ; stomakakkêi Str. 16.4.24 ; to be attacked, hupochusei Alex.Aphr. Pr.2.54 ; epilêpsiai Cyran.47 ; to be tempted to sin, Ev.Matt. 4.1, al.
So what is your authority for saying that PEIRAZW "has never had such meaning"?
Jonathan
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