[B-Greek] Greek Syntax from Papias
Doug Hoxworth
dhoxworth at charter.net
Tue Dec 2 17:06:56 EST 2003
><Stephen>
>No. Why would PRESBUTEROS mean "aforementioned"?
<doug>
because he just mentioned PRESUBTERWN in the first list
and only John has the modifier PRESBUTEROS in the second
list. the NT Intro by Carson/Moo/Morris made the claim
that the syntax suggests that it would be best to
understand it as "the aforementioned John", presumably
according to my best guess because only John has the
PRESBUTEROS modifier.
><Stephen>
>If you are trying to determine whether the grammar of the
passage is going to answer the age-old "one John or two"
question, you're out of luck since the grammar can support
either option.
<doug>
i was mostly trying to confirm comments from the NT intro.
a claim was made with no proof or explanation to back it
up and so i thought i'd confirm. in the process, i
wondered about the article in the construction hO
PRESBUTEROS IWANNHS of how it is best understood. since
they were saying that it flagged the previous reference of
his grouping within the PRESBUTERWN, i wondered why one
would write hO PRESBUTEROS IWANNHS instead of IWANNHAS hO
PRESUBEROS, or PRESBUTEROS IWANNHS, or IWANNHS
PRESBUTEROS, or hO IWANNHS hO PRESBUTEROS. so this was
more of an extension of the first question and to the
usage of the article.
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