[B-Greek] Greek Syntax from Papias

Doug Hoxworth dhoxworth at charter.net
Tue Dec 2 17:06:56 EST 2003


><Stephen>
>No. Why would PRESBUTEROS mean "aforementioned"?

<doug>
because he just mentioned PRESUBTERWN in the first list 
and only John has the modifier PRESBUTEROS in the second 
list. the NT Intro by Carson/Moo/Morris made the claim 
that the syntax suggests that it would be best to 
understand it as "the aforementioned John", presumably 
according to my best guess because only John has the 
PRESBUTEROS modifier.

><Stephen>
>If you are trying to determine whether the grammar of the
passage is going to answer the age-old "one John or two"
question, you're out of luck since the grammar can support
either option.

<doug>
i was mostly trying to confirm comments from the NT intro. 
a claim was made with no proof or explanation to back it 
up and so i thought i'd confirm. in the process, i 
wondered about the article in the construction hO 
PRESBUTEROS IWANNHS of how it is best understood. since 
they were saying that it flagged the previous reference of 
his grouping within the PRESBUTERWN, i wondered why one 
would write hO PRESBUTEROS IWANNHS instead of IWANNHAS hO 
PRESUBEROS, or PRESBUTEROS IWANNHS, or IWANNHS 
PRESBUTEROS, or hO IWANNHS hO PRESBUTEROS.  so this was 
more of an extension of the first question and to the 
usage of the article.



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