[B-Greek] Rev. 1:10
Jason Hare
jason at hareplay.com
Wed Dec 3 12:50:06 EST 2003
OK. Gotcha. However, noting that in Modern Greek KURIAKH is sufficient for
"Sunday," would it be necessary that hHMERA appear with the modifier? Is
that what is done in Modern Greek? How early can we find attestation for
this, or is this Magnesian appearance its earliest witness?
Jason
----- Original Message -----
From: "Lira" <rosangelalira at terra.com.br>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, December 03, 2003 10:33 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Rev. 1:10
Jason,
Just to clear up the matter.
In his initial post, Tony asked if Rev. 1:10 referred to Sunday which the
Early Church Fathers including the Didache came to designate as the "Lord's
day".
Gfsomsel replied that the term is used even before the Didache, in Ignatius'
Epistle to the Magnesians, referring to Sunday.
Having studied the historical aspect of the expression "Lord's day", I
replied that both the Didache and the Espistle to the Magnesians are without
value as evidences, since the texts are defective and nobody knows what the
original authors meant. The Didache says KATA KURIAKHN DE KURIOU, "according
to the Lord's (?) of the Lord", which does not make any sense at all; and
the only Greek extant text of the Epistle to the Magnesians says KATA
KURIAKHN ZOHN ZWNTES, "living according to the Lord's life"; it is the Latin
text which omits the word for "life", and on this basis scholars opted for
the reading KATA KURIAKHN ZWNTES. But this is debatable.
Gfsomsel must have failed to notice that the Greek text included the word
ZOHN, and said that it couldn't be "living according to the Lord's life".
What I said was that I saw no difference, grammatically, between "living
according to the Lord's life", and "living according to the Lord's day"; I
mean, why was the reading "living according to the Lord's life" impossible?
I accidentally ommited the preposition KATA in the phrases; it was a
mistake.
Rosangela Lira
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